The abuse of these tactics has…show more content… Orwell goes on to mention language in politics and how it is a “mass of lies” (p.786). He establishes that his concern with the language in politics is most alarming to him and states “This mixture of vagueness and sheer incompetence is the most marked characteristic of modern English prose, and especially of any kind of political writing” (p.779). Personalized Up you and me we got this A trend that is noticed throughout his piece is the social conditions and how it can affect ones language. Our surroundings, if negative, will have an effect on the way language is used. Orwell?s ideas have been seen before, but he is considered to have presented them in one of the best ways that is still influential today. The decay of society as portrayed in George Orwell ‘s 1984 is due to the inaccuracy of language and the connection of language and thought, which is suggested by Orwell ‘s essay ?Politics and the English Language.? He makes the case that it becomes ugly and inaccurate because out thoughts are foolish, but the slovenliness of our language makes it easier for us to have foolish thoughts (p.788). His logical explanation centers on the five passages that were presented in the beginning of his piece, and he continues to reflect upon it throughout with the most significant issue being the author’s lack of meaning.

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His logical argument seems to be his strongest point. It is apparent that Orwell’s pathos argument is not as strong as his logos argument. However, he does use stories and testimonials to support his case. For instance, he gives an example from the book of Ecclesiastes and translates a passage of good English into modern English of the worst sort (p. 783). We see here the type of English that Orwell has an issue with. Personalized Up you and me we got this  The effect of modern day English leads Orwell to believe that is piece Relationship between thought and language is not something you consider or contemplate in your everyday life. Nevertheless, the answer to this seemingly useless philosophical question might spell the difference between totalitarian control of our minds achieved through manipulation of language and a world of freedom, where human ideas cannot be subjected to blatant perversions as they resonate through intelligent minds, bound only by the power of our imagination. This dilemma has captivated my attention ever since I read Orwell’s “1984” as well as his “Politics and English Language.”

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In both pieces, Orwell implies a direct correlation between the two notions and paints a horrifying picture of disastrous consequences that a language manipulation can usher in. Orwell’s claim that “if thought corrupts language, language can also corrupt thought” clashed with my own perception of those concepts somewhere deep on a subconscious level. “Language could not possibly alter a thought,” I thought, “How could it? After all, language merely describes my thoughts, whereas thoughts are generally spontaneous ideas, sounds, pictures that flash though my mind’s eye, sometimes so fast, that I fail to grasp them before they fleet away.” Even though in his article Orwell was referring specifically to bad practices that are common in the use of language, the question persisted. Can a language influence thinking in the same manner as thinking influences the words being uttered or does it have. Two of George Orwell?s best known works are ?Politics and the English Language? Personalized Up you and me we got this  and 1984. In ?Politics and the English Language,? he points out many of the issues with the modern writings of his time, which are still problems today. Nineteen Eighty-Four focuses on the push of totalitarian rule by the government.

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